Who are we? Who and where were we before we were Anglo-Saxons? What
became of the ten tribes, if amalgamated, and with whom?
If the Anglo-Saxons are not Israel, what people inhabit the waste
places and the wilderness, as God said Israel should?
Gen. 35: 11, promises Abraham that "A nation and a company of
nations shall be of thee." If America is not that nation, and
Great Britain that company of nations, who is?
If the Anglo-Saxons are not a great people, where is such a people to
be found? If we are not Israel, we must be Gentiles, and as such are in
possession of Palestine, and as Gentiles must be driven out before the
Jews can return, and Christ take up His earthly reign.
If God's Israel were to be in the Isles north and west of Jerusalem
(The Isles afar off), and Great Britain is not Israel, then Great
Britain must be destroyed and another nation found to replace her.
If we are not Israel, how does it come that we have Israel's Sabbath,
which was to be a sign, their Mosaic laws (the only nations having
them), their military prowess, for they were to be God's battle axe to
destroy the nations.
How is it we are the evangelizing and missionary peoples of the
earth? How is it that we possess the wealth of the world? We borrow from
none and lend to all.
How is it that we have always been pro-Jewish, and the only nation
friendly to the Jews? How is it that we alone, without the help of any
other nation, took Palestine and became its protector? Has God changed
His plan and chosen a Gentile nation to make it possible for the Jews to
return to the promised land?
The Anglo-Saxons, having inhabited the Isles of the sea and the waste
places, where is there still a place for Israel if, and when, found?
How is it God places Tarshish (Great Britain) and the young lions
thereof (the company of nations), together with Sheba and Dedan against
Russia, Gomer, Togomer, and many people with them, and then fights for
us as he did for the Children of Israel at the Red Sea, if we be not
Israel? God has made no such promise to other nations.
Who are the sheep nations that befriend "My Brethren" if
not Anglc Israel, Great Britain and her company of nations and the
United States of America a Great nation? Surely, they are not the Jews.
How can the Jews be all there is of Israel when Eze. 37:15-23
requires that Ephraim and his fellows represent the ten tribes, and
Judah, representing his fellows, must be united and march together (not
alone) to Palestine? How can the Jews be said to be all of Israel,
seeing that they are not a nation, or a company of nations? They are not
a nation in "the Isles of the sea, they are not a missionary
people, they have not populated the waste places. They have not been
God's battle axe. They are not known as a great people. They do not
possess the gates of their enemies, they are not blind as to their
origin, they are not an undefeated race, they have no colonies, they do
not possess a heathen nation.
Eze. 25:14. "And I will lay my vengeance upon Edom by the
hand of My People Israel." Is not Edom Turkey? Was not 1917 the
end of 1,335 years from the beginning of the Hegira? Was not Turkey
driven out by Great Britain (Israel) on the 1,335th anniversary? Unless
Great Britain is Israel, then the Turks were driven out by the Gentiles
and, therefore, contrary to prophecy.
Why is it claimed by opponents of Anglo-Israel teaching that Christ
is the Stone Kingdom, when Dan. 2:34,45, says plainly that in those days
the God of Heaven shall set up a Kingdom that shall never be destroyed?
In the days of those kings, not after. It is a Kingdom and with it He
will destroy the nations. Christ is never spoken of as a Kingdom.
He is the Chief Corner Stone of the Stone Kingdom, its completion,
but not the Kingdom.
This Kingdom is not set up after, but during the days of those kings,
and carries over into the Millennium and continues forever. All
pre-millennialists believe in the near return of Christ, but a nation
meeting all of the above requirements must be in possession of Palestine
when Christ returns to establish His Kingdom.
Why are the Anglo-Israel teachers charged with heresy and teaching
the doctrine of Devils, when they accept and teach every fundamental
truth, such as the inspiration and inerrancy of the Bible, the deity of
Jesus, including His pre-existence and oneness with the Father, His
Virgin birth, His resurrection of the body, the descent of the Holy
Spirit, Salvation by faith, the Gospel of the Grace of God, as set forth
by the Christian Church throughout the ages, the return of Christ for
His body, the Church, and His return with His Body to reign during the
Why is it that there are 2,511 promises and prophecies made to Israel
and the ten tribes, and only 750 to Judah, if the Jews are all that
there is left of Israel? What disposition is to be made of the promises
to Israel? Why has the Church spiritualized the promises to Israel and
transferred them to Judah and the Church?
Why do Church leaders persist in calling Abraham, Isaac and Jacob and
the ten tribes of Israel, Jews, when it is clear that only
descendants of Judah are properly so-called? The term
"Jew" was never applied to Israel, and does not appear in the
Bible until 100 years after the separation of the tribes.
Why do anti-Anglo-Israelites persist in claiming that the Jews are
all of Israel, when the genealogies given in Ezra and Nehemiah of the
42,000 who returned were only from the tribes of Judah and Benjamin? The
ten tribes were outside of the Roman Empire in A.D. 70, according to
Josephus, who says they were a very great company without number. Why do
opponents of Anglo-Israel insist on all the curses pronounced upon
Israel being fulfilled literally, and the blessings conferred either
upon the Church or Judah?
Why do our opponents not recognize the fact that the seven times
pronounced upon Israel (the Ten Tribes) was completed in 1799, just
2,520 years after their taking away to Babylon by Shalmaneser in 721
B.C., their restoration, therefore, should begin at that time and
continue until the return of Christ, when He, whose right it is, should
take the throne? Why do they not see that Judah's punishment should
begin 135 years later, and end correspondingly, i.e., in 1935?
Why do they not see that the promises made to Israel were far more
extensive, and just as sure of fulfillment as those made to Judah? Is it
not unsound exegesis to literalize the curses to Israel and spiritualize
her blessings and transfer them to the Church? If the curses were
literal and earthly, why not the promised blessings?
When Jesus said unto the Jews: "Your house is left unto you
desolate," and "The kingdom shall be taken from you and
given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof," to whom
did He give it but to the ten tribes of Israel, who were then in part
settled in the Isles afar off with a descendant of David upon the throne
through Tea Tephi, Zedekiah's elder daughter, thus fulfilling God's
promise to David that he would never lack a man to sit upon the throne.
The ten tribes were still residing in great numbers around the shores of
the Caspian and Black Seas. Immediately following A.D.70, these tribes
began their trek westward, continuing until A.D.1066, when the Normans
arrived, they being the escaped tribe of Benjamin whom God loaned to
Judah for a time that "He might always have a light before
In Jer. 3rd Chapter, note especially verse 11, which says, "And
the Lord said unto me, The back sliding Israel hath justified herself
more than treacherous Judah." Therefore the ten tribes are not
as guilty as Judah, and would consequently receive less severe
punishment and would likely precede Judah in their restoration by 135
God said the ten tribes would be hidden, even unknown to themselves;
known by another tongue; scattered among the nations, but not mixed with
them. Is that not true of the Anglo-Saxons and of no other nations?